Unfortunately, you are not the only one who cannot verify if that
quotation is accurate : 'Scienza, razza et scientismo' is found in an
anthology of writings by Evola which seems to have been unavailable
for a while.
In any case, in 'Sintesi di dottrina della razza' - 'SYNTHESIS' -,
Evola doesn't say it and, as pointed out yesterday, it can be
gathered from the considerations he makes, in that book,
on 'transcendent heredity', as well as from the traditional teachings
on cyclic involution which he often refers to, that such possibility
is most unlikely. A comparison between the forma mentis of the Aryan
and the forma mentis of the Jew should also give you a clue : don't
all great racialists agree that the Jewish spirit is characterised by
a parasitic tendency to 'adapt' itself to the spirit of the peoples
in which its representatives live and to 'infiltrate'?
If 'infiltration' is possible on the material plane, isn't it
possible on the subtle plane too?
To come to that preface, please note that to say that a Jew can
espouse Aryan thought and to say that a Jew can have an Aryan soul
doesn't amount to the same thing in any way. In the first case, it's
an acquired characteristic. In the second case, it's something
innate. According to his extraordinary capacity of adaptation, there
is no doubt that the Jew can 'espouse' Aryan thought ; we don't know
and we have no way to know whether Evola "had surely noticed" it,
but, surely, "especially in Germany some Jews felt more "Aryan" than
many Germans". Yet, race in the true sense is not a question of
feelings.
If "Evola did not at all regard the Jews Weininger and Michelstaedter
(...) as "Jews", independently of their heritage", how come he has to
mention that they were Jews, each time he refers to them? Weininger
was actually half-Jew, and that's precisely how Evola calls him.
--- In
evola_as_he_is@yahoogroups.com, "frederick_of_hohenstaufen"
<slugg3r@h...> wrote:
>
> --- In
evola_as_he_is@yahoogroups.com, "evola_as_he_is"
> <evola_as_he_is@y...> wrote:
>
> > As for the "doctrinal and critical examination of the
fundamentals
> > of racism, biological, philosophical or spiritual", it was
carried
> > out in 'Sintesi di dottrina della razza', in which Evola points
out
> > that, in times like these, quite often, the race of the body does
not
> > correspond perfectly to the race of the soul or/and to the race
of
> > the spirit in a given individual. On this basis, it is tempting
to
> > make Evola say what he never said, that is to say, that an Aryan
soul
> > may be found in a non-Aryan body. Those who have read with
> > attention 'Sintesi di dottrina della razza' and are familiar with
the
> > traditional teachings on cyclic involution should see why such
> > possibility is most improbable, both in theory and in concrete
terms.
>
> In the preface "Julius Evola's Political Endeavours" to the English
> Edition of 'Men Among the Ruins', H.T. Hansen writes:
>
> In light of all of Evola's well-known anti-Jewish remarks, how could
> he ever have been called a "Jew lover"? We have already shown a few
> reasons. Since Evola set supreme importance on the spiritual
attitude,
> a Jew could of course also espouse "Aryan" thought (see "Scienza,
> razza et scientismo" [Science, Race and Scientism], in Vita
Italiana,
> XXX, no. 357, December 1942, pp. 556-563; there, he writes verbatim:
> "For example, can an 'Aryan' have a Jewish soul or inner race and
vice
> versa? Yes it is possible...") And Evola had surely noticed that
> especially in Germany some Jews felt more "Aryan" than many Germans,
> and this was not only in intellectual circles. In exactly this sense
> one must assume that Evola did not at all regard the Jews Weininger
> and Michelstaedter, to whom he owed so much, as "Jews",
independently
> of their heritage." (p.81, Inner Traditions)
>
> I am sure the founder of this list is aware of this passage and I'm
> also well-aware of the opinion he holds of H.T. Hansen. Nonetheless
I
> found it pertinent to bring up the passage at this point of the
> discussion. I cannot verify what Hansen says to be
quoting 'verbatim'
> in the original text. Does he simply take it out of the general
> context? I would appreciate some clarifications on this passage.
>
> FH
>